Excitation physiology

 

1. Forms of cellular responses to external influences:

A) refractoriness;

C) excitability;

C) decreased excitability;

D) irritability;

E) physiological rest;

F) exaltation.

 

2. In the case of demyelinated fibers, excitation is spread:

A) in both directions;

B) decrementally;

C) without decrement;

D) saltatory;

E) intermittent;

F) stepwise.

 

3. In myelinated fibers, excitation is spread:

A) in one direction;

B) decrementally;

C) not isolated;

D) without decrement;

E) orthodromic;

F) stepwise.

 

4. Phases of the refractory period with excitability:

A) the paradoxical phase;

B) absolute refractory phase;

C) equalizing phase;

D) deceleration phase;

E) primary phase;

F) phase of exaltation;

G) clot retraction phase.

 

5. The strength of stimulus threshold is divided into:

A) subthreshold;

B) chronoxia;

C) useful time;

D) threshold;

E) rheobase;

F) doubled rheobase;

G) time;

H) above threshold.

6. Single muscle contraction is divided into the following three phases

A) phase of isotonic contraction;

B) latent period;

C) absolute refractory phase;

D) phase of contraction;

E) relative refractory phase;

F) the phase of exaltation;

G) isometric contraction phase;

H) relaxation phase.

 

7. The main causes of temporary loss or loss of muscle function:

A) accumulation of lactic and phosphoric acids;

B) fatigue;

C) excitement;

D) accumulation of mediators;

E) high tissue lability;

F) reduction of glycogen stores;

G) high muscle tone;

H) depletion of energy sources.

 

8. The structure of the medullated fibers includes the following elements:

A) lemmocytes;

B) nodes of Ranvier;

C) cytoplasm;

D) myelin sheath;

F) axoplasm;

F) the core;

G) ribosomes;

H) cytoplasm.

 

9. Which of the listed scientists proposed the theory of sodium-potassium pump, explaining the mechanism of the emergence of biocurrents in living tissue?

A) Hodgkin;

B) L. Galvani;

C) Katz;

D) J. Bernstein;

E) K. Mateucci;

F) L.Herman;

G) Hatsley;

H) Du Bois-Reymond.

 

10. Speed of impulse in myelinated nerve fibers:

A) 0.5-3 m / s;

B) 30-120 m / s;

C) 40-120 m / s;

D) 50-80 m / s;

E) 30-40 m / s;

F) 20 m / s;

G) 30-80 m / s;

H) 40-100 m / s.

6. 11. How is excitation performed on a nerve fiber?

A) not isolated;

C) unilateral excitation;

C) stepwise;

D) with increased excitability;

E) in isolation;

F) two-way transmission;

G) with anatomical and morphological integrity;

H) in all organs.

6.  

   12. What explains the low fatigue of nerve fibers?

A) high lability;

B) low lability;

C) increased metabolism;

D) intensive process of resynthesis;

E) low power consumption;

F) high release of the mediator.

G) low selection of the mediator;

H) high metabolism.

 

13. Types of muscle contractions in an organism:

A) isolated;

B) isotonic;

C) single;

D) isometric;

E) auxotonic;

F) tone;

G) two-sided;

H) rhythmic.

 

14. Causes of muscle fatigue:

A) high lability;

B) accumulation of metabolic products (lactic and phosphoric acids);

C) increased metabolism;

D) intensive process of resynthesis;

E) low power consumption;

F) reduction of glycogen stores;

G) decrease in the release of mediators;

H) increase the mediator release.

 

15. Methods for measuring tissue excitability:

A) in volts;

B) chronoxia;

C) threshold of excitability (irritation);

D) m / sec;

E) tissue irritability;

F) useful time;

G) in time;

H) by the frequency of the contractions.

 

16. Properties of muscles

A) contractibility;

B) low power consumption;

C) conductivity;

D) isolated excitation;

E) high tissue lability;

F) excitability;

G) bilateral conducting;

H) chronoxia.

 

17. Excitable tissue includes:

A) glandular tissue;

B) connective tissue;

C) coarse-fiber and lamellar bones;

D) cartilaginous tissue;

E) muscle tissue.

 

18. The physiological features of unstriped muscle are:

A) Ability to automatism;

B) High sensitivity to chemicals;

C)do not have sensitivity to chemical, including pharmacological substances;

D) not capable of automatism;

E) reduction is accompanied by significant energy expenditure;

F) lack of plastic tone.

 

19. The origin of the resting potential is related to:

A) Selective permeability for calcium;

B) Gradients of ion concentration between the sides of the membrane;

C) Increased excitability;

D) Uneven distribution of ions on both sides of the membrane;

E) passive transport of potassium ions from the cell;

F) increased permeability of membrane for sodium ions;

G) increased permeability membrane for calcium ions.

 

20. Сontractile muscle proteins are ....

A) actin, myosin;

B) actin, myosin, troponin;

C) actin, myosin, tropomyosin;

D) actin, tropomyosin.

 

Physiology of the nervous system

 

1. Spinal cord neurons are functionally divided into:

A) pyriform;

B) motor;

C) Bipolar;

D) pseudo-unipolar;

E) pyramidal;

F) stellate.

 

2. Centers localized in the medulla oblongata

A) auditory;

B) vasomotor;

C) olfactory;

D) visual;

E) taste;

F) motor.

 

3. Synapse form:

A) synaptic vesicles;

B) postsynaptic membrane;

C) mediator;

D) axon hillock;

E) vesicles.

 

4. The black substance of the midbrain co-ordinates:

A) protective auditory reflexes;

B) tone of extensor muscle;

C) side turning of the head;

D) small finger movements;

E) swallowing acts;

F) chewing acts;

 

5. The idea of ​​a reflex has developed in the works:

A) L. Galvani;

B) F. Magendie;

C) I. Pavlov;

D) R. Descartes;

E.) K. Ludwig;

F) M. Lomonosov;

 

6. Occlusion processes are based on:

A) prolongation;

B) dispersion;

C) animation;

D) convergence.

 

7. Excitation from one afferent neuron is transmitted to many motoneurons due to the phenomenon:

A) rhythm transformation;

B) spatial summation;

C) relief;

D) the common final path;

E) irradiation.

 

8. Nerve centers do not have the property:

A) plasticity;

C) high sensitivity to chemical irritants;

C) ability to summation of excitations;

D) the ability to transform the rhythm;

E) two-way excitation.

 

9. The principle of the common final path in the CNS coordination activity is valid:

A) only for spinal cord motoneurons;

B) only for the higher departments of the central nervous system;

C) for any department of the central nervous system.

 

10. After cutting below the medulla oblongata, muscle tone:

A) practically will not change;

B) disappears;

C) strengthens the tone of extensors;

D) significantly reduces.

11. Muscle tonus with a double-sided cutting of the posterior roots of the spinal cord:

A) disappears;

B) the tone of the extensor will increase;

C) will decrease significantly;

D) will not change.

 

12. For animals with decerebrate rigidity is not typical:

A) to change of the normal posture;

B) disappearance of positonic reflexes;

C) disappearance of the lift reflex;

D) a sharp decrease in the tone of the extensor muscles;

E) a sharp increase in the tone of the extensor muscles.

 

13. The inhibitory process occurs as a result of:

A) inactivation of cholinesterase;

B) reduction of the excitatory mediator production;

C) the functioning of special synapses using inhibition mediators.

 

14. Inhibition is the process of:

A) resulting from fatigue of nerve cells;

B) the underlying rhythm transformation in CNS;

C) arising with excessively strong stimuli;

D) preventing the occurrence or weakening of an already generated excitement.

 

15. The phenomenon of central inhibition was discovered:

A) Weber brothers;

B) Pavlov I.P .;

C) Sechenov I.M.

 

16. Physiological properties of nerve centers:

A) absence of reflex aftereffect;

B) absence of delay in excitation in nerve centers;

C) easy fatiguability;

D) are not capable of summation of excitations;

E) high lability;

F) summation of excitations in nerve centers;

G) are practically unattainable.

 

17. The component of the reflex arc, which transfers impulses of the afferent neuron to the efferent is:

A) reflex center;

B) receptor

C) motor neuron;

D) sensitive neuron;

E) intercalary neuron.

  

18. The autonomic nervous system includes:

A) metasympathetic nerves;

B) parasympathetic nerves;

C) large hemispheres;

D) diencephalon;

E) the cerebellum;

F) hypothalamus;

G) craniocerebral nerves.

 

19. The brain includes:

A) the spinal cord;

B) medulla oblongata and bridge;

C) cranial nerves;

D) parasympathetic nerves;

E) spinal nerves;

F) sympathetic nerves.

 

20. Where are the primary visual centers located:

A) posterior knolls of the quadruple;

B) the hypothalamus;

C) cerebellum;

D) anterior tubercles of the quadruple;

E) red core.

 

Physiology of higher nervous activity

 

1. Types of the unconditional inhibition:

A) permanent inhibition;

B) retarded inhibition;

C) extinctive inhibition;

D) differentiation inhibition ;

E) delayed inhibition;

F) beyond inhibition;

G) fading inhibition.

 

2. Types of conditioned inhibition:

A) protective inhibition;

B) permanent inhibition;

C) differentiation inhibition;

D) beyond inhibition;

E) extinctive inhibition;

F) congenital inhibition;

G) conditioned inhibition.

 

3. By biological significance, conditioned reflexes are divided into:

A) taste;

B) tactile;

C) visual;

D) sexual;

E) food.

 

4. Conditions for the development of a conditioned reflex require:

A) inactive state of the cortex;

B) experimenter;

C) set of indifferent stimuli;

D) absence of extraneous stimuli;

E) indifferent stimulus;

F) vigorous state of the cerebral cortex;

G) experimental animal.

 

5. By the form of the receptors perceiving the conditioned stimulus, the reflexes are divided into:

A) food;

B) propriceptive

C) sensitive;

D) exteroceptive;

E) motor.

 

6. The subject of physiology of higher nervous activity is:

A) blood circulation;

B) speech and thinking;

C) breathing;

D) muscular activity;

E) types of HNA (higher nervous activity).

 

7.  Uncontrolled type (choleric) is characterized by the properties of the nervous system:

A) the predominance of excitation processes;

B) low mobility;

C) imbalance;

D) immobility;

E) weak excitation processes;

F) weakness.

 

8. Motivational excitation covers the following brain structures:

A) cortex of the cerebral hemispheres;

B) somatic nervous system;

C) peripheral nervous system;

D) structure of the limbic system and the reticular formation;

E) hypothalamus.

 

9. Quiet type (phlegmatic) is characterized by the next properties of the nervous system:

A) imbalance;

B) weakness;

C) balance;

D) force;

E) inertia.

 

10. Which processes most fully characterize a memory:

A) transfer of information;

B) fixation of information;

C) irradiation;

D) storage of information;

E) information transformation;

F) reproduction of information.

 

11. In which part of the cerebral cortex localized the centers of vision?

A) temporal part;

B) occipital;

C) frontal;

D) parietal;

E) anterior sections of the temporal lobe.

 

12. What the first signaling system provides:

A) development of speech;

B) assimilation of information coming in the form of symbols;

C) specific subject thinking;

D) development of the letter;

E) sign-symbolic reflection of objects.

 

13. What is the basis of classification on the types of HNA:

A) individual acquired properties of the functioning of the central nervous system;

B) individual innate properties functioning in the central nervous system;

C) physical properties of man;

D) totality of stable personality properties;

Е) according to the psychological features of a person;

 

14. Strong, balanced, inert type of HNA. What kind of temperament does this characteristic include:

A) phlegmatic;

B) choleric;

C) Sanguine;

D) melancholic;

E) there are no right answer.

 

15. A specific form of memory that ensures the memorization and recognition of parents:

A) iconic;

B) sensory;

C) operational;

D) logical semantic;

E) imprinting.

 

16. What kinds of attention exist?

A) arbitrary and non-imposing;

B) unexpected and expected;

C) indicative and "what is it?";

D) stable and switchable

E) concentration and stability.

 

17. What underlies the formation of short-term memory:

A) short impulse effects lasting up to 1 hour;

B) short impulse effects lasting up to 2 hours;

C) structural and biochemical rearrangements in cells;

D) reorganization of synaptic contacts;

E) short pulse effects lasting up to 30 min.

 

18. What are conditioned reflexes for humans and animals:

A) the basis for the formation of temporary links;

B) creating an appropriate environment;

C) the basis for the formation of behavior;

D) repeated repetition of actions;

E) the basis for transfer them by inheritance.

 

19. What is the result of a person's mental activity:

A) consciousness;

B) behavior;

C) emotions;

D) inhibition;

E) thinking.

                       

20. The ability to perceive and pronounce words that arose in the process of a person's social life is:

A) instinct;

B) the first signaling system;

C) The second signaling system.

 

Physiology of analyzers

 

1. Skin receptors are:

A) pain;

B) muscular;

C) proprioceptive;

D) interoceptive;

E) tactile.

 

2. Refractive anomalies:

A) astigmatism;

B) myopia;

C) cataract;

D) peripheral vision;

E) color blindness;

F) convergence;

G) hyperopia.

 

3. In the hearing organ are distinguished next departments:

A) the inner ear;

B) helicotrem;

C) otolithic organ;

D) sacculus;

E) utriculus;

F) endolymph.

 

4. Receptor is:

A) part of the brain;

B) fragment of DNA;

C) nerve ending;

D) portion of the genome;

E) nerve cell.

 

5. The main functions of the skin:

A) transport;

B) metabolic;

C) receptor;

D) transfer of genetic information;

E) protective and excretory;

F) generation of action potential.

 

6. The middle ear includes:

A) membranous labyrinth;

B) hammer;

C) Corti's organ;

D) stapes;

E) scochlea;

F) anvil.

 

7. How is called analyzers' future to get used to certain stimuli:

A) sensitization;

B) adaptation;

C) sensitivity;

D) specificity;

E) plasticity.

 

8. The retina consists of the following cell layers:

A) epithelial

B) connecting

C) from two layers of cells

D) net

E) pigmented

F) from three layers of cells

G) photoreceptor

H) bipolar and ganglionic

 

9. A large number of taste papilla are located:

A) at the tip of the tongue;

B) in the center of tongue;

C) at the root of the tongue;

D) on the front of the tongue;

E) on the back of the tongue;

F) in the middle of the tongue;

G) on the surface of the tongue;

H) at the edges of the tongue.

 

10. Functional links of analyzers:

A) afferent nerve fibers;

B) effector;

C) receptors - the peripheral part of the analyzer;

D) the conductor part;

E) efferent nerve fibers;

F) intermediate brain;

G) cerebral or central part of the cerebral cortex;

H) middle brain.

 

11. The total number of receptors that perceive heat and cold on the skin:

А) 100 000;

В) 280 000;

С) 300 000;

D) 400 000;

Е) 350 000;

F) 450 000;

G) 150 000;

H) 500 000.

 

12. Taste sensations are divided into the following groups:

A) chemical;

B) sweet;

C) cold;

D) thermal;

E) putrefactive;

F) bitter;

G) salty;

H) fragrant.

 

13. The structure of the ear is divided into the following three parts:

A) the auricle and the external auditory meatus;

B) cones;

C) auricle and perelymph;

D) the central fossa;

E) endolymph and Eustachian tube;

F) sticks;

G) tympanic cavity;

H) semicircular canals-the equilibrium balance.

 

14. The eyeball is covered with:

A) the lens;

B) anterior chamber of the eye;

C) sclerotic coat;

D) choroid;

E) posterior chamber of the eye;

F) retina;

G) iris;

H) cones and chopsticks.

 

15. Functions of the lacrimal gland:

A) perceives light;

B) moisturizes the cornea;

C) changes the pupillary lumen

D) removes foreign bodies from the surface of the eye;

E) contraction of the radial muscles;

F) collects and refracts the rays;

G) distinguishes colors;

H) preserves the transparency of the cornea.

 

16. Where are the primary visual centers located:

A) posterior knolls of the quadruple;

B) the hypothalamus;

C) cerebellum;

D) anterior tubercles of the quadruple;

E) red core.

 

17. What is the name of the examination of an object with two eyes simultaneously:

A) hyperopia;

B) binocular vision;

C) myopia;

D) hemostalopia.

E) adaptation.

 

18. What sensations do skin analyzers give:

A) visual;

B) tactile;

C) vestibular;

D) proprioceptors;

E) motor.

 

19. Where is the central part of the visual analyzer:

A) the area of the ammon horn;

B) premotor cortex;

C) area of the posterior central gyrus;

D) temporal cortex;

E) occipital cortex.

 

20. Where is the peripheral part of the olfactory analyzer located:

A) nasopharynx;

B) common nasal passage;

C) pharynx;

D) upper nasal passage;

E) the vestibule of the nasal cavity.

 

Blood physiology

 

1. The internal environment of the body include:

A) urine;

B) lymph;

C) a tear;

D) intraarticular fluid;

E) cerebrospinal fluid;

F) smune.

 

2. Formal blood elements:

A) a neurocyte;

B) white blood cell;

C) glandulocyte;

D) erythrocyte;

E) epitheliocyte.

 

3. During the transport of gases in the human blood, hemoglobin is converted into:

A) hemavanadine;

C) myoglobin;

C) hemocyanin;

D) hemoritin;

E) oxyhemoglobin;

F) deoxy-hemoglobin;

G) Carbohemoglobin.

 

4. Normal content of hemoglobin in the adults blood in GM/DL:

A) 120 -130;

B) 90 -100;

C) 60 - 80;

D) 130 -140.

 

5. Functions of platelets:

A) cellular immunity;

B) phagocytosis;

C) blood coagulation;

D) participation in allergic reactions

E) immunity;

F) humoral immunity.

 

6. Сirculatory buffers systems:

A) leukocyte;

B) nervous;

C) hormonal;

D) hemoglobin and protein;

E) humoral;

F) oxygen.

 

7. Blood coagulation slows down or is completely inhibited when:

A) constant room temperature of blood storage;

B) addition of Ca2 + into the blood

C) lowering the temperature of blood storage;

D) destruction of platelets;

E) removal of fibrinogen from the plasma (defibrinization);

F) the addition of fibrinogen to the blood;

G) removal of Ca2 + from the blood (decalcification).

 

8. Blood pool is in :

A) capillary system of the liver;

B) peripheral nervous system;

C) brain;

D) spinal cord;

E) blood-brain barrier.

 

9. Destruction place of of leukocytes:

A) spinal cord;

B) a large circle of blood circulation;

C) liver;

D) places where the inflammatory process is taking place;

E) spleen.

 

10. Physiological properties of platelets:

A) hemocoagulation (blood coagulation);

B) positive chemotaxis;

C) adhesiveness;

D) diapedesis (the property of penetrating through the wall of capillaries);

E) colloidal properties;

F) aggregation.

 

11. What is the protective function of the blood:

A) phagocytosis;

B) hemolysis;

C) leukopenia;

D) hemophilia;

E) mean cell volume.

 

12. What is the name of the blood from which the fibrin protein is removed:

A) oxalate;

B) itratnaya;

C) whole;

D) Defibrinated;

E) Stabilized.

 

13. What is the name of the process of hemoglobin release from erythrocytes when its shell is destroyed:

A) hemolysis;

C) plasmolysis;

C) hemopoiesis;

D) erythropoiesis;

 

14. Which leukocytes belong to the agranulocyte group:

A) basophils;

B) lymphocytes;

C) eosinophils;

D) juvenile;

F) stab.

 

15. What kind of blood elements are involved in creating immunity:

A) red blood cells;

B) neutrophils;

C) platelets;

D) basophils;

E) lymphocytes.

 

16. What substance is a natural anticoagulant:

A) sodium citrate;

B) oxalic ammonium;

C) potassium oxalate;

D) heparin;

E) sodium citrate.

 

17. What are the uniform elements of the blood that predominate in the lymph:

A) red blood cells;

B) leukocytes;

C) platelets;

D) eosinophils;

E) lymphocytes.

 

18. What is the function of blood, which provideы communication between different organs:

A) transport;

B) respiratory;

C) protective;

D) correlative;

E) excretory.

 

19. What is the name of the hemoglobin combination with carbon monoxide (HbCO):

A) methemoglobin;

B) carboxyhemoglobin;

C) сarbohemoglobin;

D) oxyhemoglobin;

E) myoghemoglobin.

 

20. What is the main сirculatory buffers system in blood plasma:

A) hemoglobin;

B) phosphate;

C) carbonate;

D) protein;

E) sodium.

 

Physiology of the endocrine system

 

1. Thyroid hormone increases:

A) level of iodine in organisms;

B) heat transfer;

C) sexual function;

D) basal metabolism;

E) body weight and height;

F) euphoria and growth.

 

2. The most excitable parts of the membrane of myelinated fibers:

A) depolarized membrane;

B) myelin sheath;

C) axon mound;

D) interception of Ranvier;

E) internal surface of the membrane;

F) site devoid of myelin sheath.

 

3. Hormone of the posterior lobe of the pituitary - oxytocin causes

A) heat production;

B) generic activity;

C) зarental instinct;

D) decreased alkalinization;

E) contraction of the uterus musculature;

F) milk production.

 

4. The action of adrenaline on the body:

A) reduction of the pulse;

B) cardiac arrest;

C) increased heart rate;

D) increased blood pressure;

E) a decrease in the rhythm of the heart;

F) Increased respiration.

 

 

5. With hypothyroidism of the thyroid gland occurs:

A) increased heat production;

B) exophthalmos;

C) myxedema;

D) cretinism;

E) increased basal metabolism;

F) insomnia;

G) endemic goiter.

 

6. General properties of hormones:

A) quickness of action in a short period of time;

B) local (local) nature of the action of hormones;

C) high biological activity;

D) lack of prolonged action;

E) low biological activity.

 

7. Hormones of adenohypophysis:

A) adrenalin;

B) insulin;

C) thyrotropic

D) glucagon;

E) somatotropic

F) adrenocorticotronic.

 

8. Female sex hormones:

A) cortisone;

B) aldosterone;

C) estrol, estrone;

D) cortisol;

E) progesterone

 

9. Pathologies associated with thyroid dysfunction:

A) thyrotoxicosis (Basedova's disease);

B) dwarfish nanism;

C) cretinism;

D) acromegaly;

E) Addison's disease.

 

10. Which of the following hormones is produced in the pituitary:

A) Thymosin;

B) progesterone;

C) melatonin;

D) estrone;

E) androgen.

 

11. Indicate the hormones, of the listed, that affect growth:

A) somatotropic hormone;

B) aldosterone;

C) adrenaline;

D) thyroxine;

E) glucagon.

 

12. Antidiuretic hormone is produced (1)

A) in the hypothalamus;

В) in the adrenal glands;

C) in the pituitary gland;

D) in the thyroid gland;

E) in the pancreas.

 

13. Low growth may be due to a deficiency in the body of the following hormones:

A) somatotropic hormone;

B) adrenaline;

C) somatostatin;

D) insulin-like growth factor;

E) Testosterone.

 

14. Adrenocorticotropic hormone regulates the work:

 

A) of the thyroid gland;

B) sex glands;

C) secretion of the cortex of the adrenal glands;

D) pineal body;

E) of the pancreas.

 

15. On what shares the pituitary body is divided:

A) upper and lower;

B) anterior, posterior, intermediate;

C) external, intermediate, internal;

D) is not divisible;

E) external and internal.

 

16. The male sex hormones include:

A) estradiol;

B) testosterone;

C) progesterone;

D) parathyroid hormone;

E) glucagon.

 

17. As the pregnancy hormone is called:

A) vasopressin;

C) prolactin;

C) progesterone;

D) parathyroid hormone;

E) glucagon

 

18. Glucocorticoids include the hormone of:

A) aldosterone;

B) cortisone;

C) estradiol;

D) parathyroid hormone;

E) testosterone.

 

19. Which gland produces oxytocin:

A) pituitary gland;

B) hypothalamus;

C) adrenal glands;

D) pineal body;

E) sex glands.

 

20. Excess of sugar in the blood and urine indicates violations in the activity:

A) of the thyroid gland;

B) of the liver;

C) of the pancreas;

D) of the adrenal glands;

E) of  the sex glands.

 

Physiology of blood circulation

 

1. Types of arterial blood pressure:

A) capillary;

B) venous;

C) diastologic;

D) systolic;

E) hydrostatic;

F) dynamic.

 

2. Cardiac cycle phases:

A) latent period;

B) ventricular systole;

C) diastole of the atria;

D) atrial systole;

E) rapid ejection;

F) diastole of the ventricles;

G) reduced ejection.

 

3. Properties of the heart muscle:

A) excitability;

B) central delay;

C) conductivity;

D) unilateral conduct;

E) slowing of the excitement;

F) summation;

G) automaton.

 

4. Functions of lymph:

A) maintenance of homeostasis;

B) erythropoiesis;

C) gas exchange;

D) metabolism;

E) respiratory;

F) coagulation.

 

5. Functions of the circulatory system:

A) movement of blood through blood vessels;

B) incretory;

C) nervous;

D) motor;

E) endocrine;

F) excretory.

 

6. The cardiac wall has layers:

A) cells of Purninje;

B) epicardium;

C) pericardium;

D) endocardium;

E) pericardium;

F) vascular;

G) conduction system of the heart.

 

 

7. What happens to the heart muscle during systole:

A) relaxation;

B) state of rest;

C) condition of the tetanus;

D) reduction;

E) automata.

 

8. Name the tracing that reflects the bioelectric activity of the heart:

A) electrocorticogram;

B) electromyogram;

C) an electroneurogram;

D) electrocardiogram

E) electrooculogram.

 

9. What manifestation of the heart activity can be palpated by hand:

A) heart sounds;

B) electrical phenomena;

C) heart beat;

D) minute volume;

E) pressure.

 

10. Which factor determines the movement of blood through the vessels of the circulatory system:

A) the length of the vessels;

B) the diameter of the vessels;

C) pressure at the beginning and end of the vascular bed;

D) the amount of blood;

E) the number of vessels.

 

11. What kind of vessels are capillaries?

A) resistance vessels;

B) great vessels;

C) capacitance vessels;

D) exchange;

E) capillary.

 

12. In which vessels a blood deposited:

A) veins;

B) arteries and veins;

C) arterioles;

D) capillaries;

E) arteries.

 

13. Systolic pressure after 60 years is:

A) 135-150 mm Hg;

B) 110-125 mm Hg;

C) 120-80 mm Hg;

D) 76-80 mm Hg;

E) 80-100 mm Hg.

 

14. Where is the basic vasomotor center:

A) in the spinal cord;

B) in the medulla oblongata;

C) in the diencephalon;

D) in the cortex of the cerebral hemispheres;

E) in the cerebellum.

 

15. What effect of histamine on the lumen of capillaries:

A) expands;

B) does not influence;

C) narrows;

D) narrows in the skin and expands in the remaining areas of the body.

 

16. Origin of first-order waves on the blood pressure tracing:

A) the change in pressure during contraction of the heart;

B) change in pressure with each respiratory movement;

C) pressure change with several respiratory movements;

D) waves of pulse pressure.

 

17. How does irritation of the sympathetic nerves affects the vessels of the internal organs:

A) doesn’t affect;

B) dilates the coronary vessels, and narrows the rest;

C) narrows the vessels;

D) narrows the coronary vessels, and expands the rest.

17. What is the impact of serotonin on the arterial vessels:

A) expands;

B) doesn’t affect;

C) narrows;

D) тarrows coronary and dilates the rest.

 

20. What is the pulse frequency:

A) fast and slow;

B) high and low;

C) large and small;

D) small and good filling;

E) frequent and rare.

 

Physiology of breathing

1. The ventilation occurs as a result of:

A) changes in the volume of the chest;

B) residual lung volume;

C) inhalation;

D) edge resistance;

E) stimulation of the nasal mucosa;

F) changes in dead space;

G) stimulation of the airways.

 

2. Methods of research of blood gases:

A) oximetry;

B) spirography;

C) the method of chemical displacement;

D) tomography;

E) fluoroscopy;

F) radiography;

G) spirometry.

  

3. Indicators of pulmonary ventilation:

A) functional dead space;

B) minute volume of breathing;

C) anatomical dead space;

D) elastic pull of the lungs;

E) the volume of the pleural cavity;

F) air-permeable alveoli;

G) vital capacity of the lungs.

 

4. Breathing includes the following processes:

A) pulmonary ventilation;

B) exchange of CO2;

C) the exchange of mediators;

D) tissue respiration;

E) pressure of the gas mixture;

F) synthesis of thromboxane and prostaglandins;

G) Transport of substances.

 

5. How does hypokapnia, high and low blood pressure (BP) affect breathing?

A) low blood pressure increases breathing;

B) hypocapnia does not change the parameters of breathing;

C) low blood pressure does not affect breathing parameters;

D) high blood pressure increases the depth and frequency of breathing;

E) hypocapnia, high and low blood pressure do not affect the parameters

F) breathing.

 

6. Dead space of the respiratory tract includes:

A) larynx;

B) cavities of the trachea and bronchi;

C) lungs;

D) respiratory musculature;

E) alveoli;

F) diaphragm.

 

7. Mechanisms involved in the regulation of respiration:

A) Homeometric mechanism of self-regulation;

B) Extracardiac regulatory mechanisms;

C) Heterometric mechanism of self-regulation;

D) Central and peripheral chemoreceptors;

E) Intracardiac mechanisms.

 

8. The vital capacity of the lungs depends on:

A) physical fitness;

B)  mental development;

C)  intelligence development;

D) learning achievement;

E) social position;

F) surface tension in the alveoli.

 

9. What is the name of the air exchange between the environment and the alveoli:

A) external breathing;

B) inner breathing;

C) exchange of gases between the alveoli and blood;

D) exchange of gases between blood and tissue fluid;

E) cellular respiration.

 

10. What is the pressure in the pleural cavity:

A) atmospheric;

B) positive;

C) above atmospheric;

D) negative;

E) zero.

 

11. Where is the respiratory center located:

A) in the cerebellum;

B) in the middle brain;

C) bottom of the 4th cerebral ventricle (oblong brain);

D) the midbrain's bottom;

E) spinal cord.

 

12. What is the name of movements recording of chest during inspiration and exhalation:

A) cardiogram;

B) pneumogram;

C) myogram;

D) encephalogram;

E) phlebogram.

 

13. What is the humoral respiratory regulator:

A) glucose;

B) carbon dioxide;

C) lactic acid;

D) proteins;

E) salts.

 

14. To which animals belong rib or thoracic type of breathing:

A) horse;

C) cattle;

C) pig;

D) rabbit;

E) dog.

15. As a result of what processes performs ventilation:

A) periodic changes in the volume of the chest;

B) airflow into the airways;

C) air inlet from the airways.

 

16. What are the main factors behind the elastic pull of the lungs:

A) tonus of bronchial muscles;

B) the elasticity of the alveoli tissue due to the presence of elastic fibers in them;

C) surface tension of the f palet of the surfactant in the alveoli;

D) all of the above.

 

18. From what volumes does the functional residual capacity form:

A) residual volume;

B) respiratoty volume;

C) reserve volume of inspiration;

D) reserve expiratory volume.

 

19. List the functions of the airways:

A) humidification of inhaled air;

B) warming the air;

C) dust removal;

D) bactericidal action with lysozyme;

E) complete gas exchange.

 

20. With irritation of the receptors of which departments there is a cough:

A) the nasal cavity;

B) nasopharynx;

C) of the larynx;

D) trachea;

E) of the bronchi.

 

Physiology of digestion

 

1. Types of digestion depending on the location of hydrolysis:

A) physical;

B) own;

C) intracellular;

D) symbiotic;

E) membrane;

F) chemical;

G) autolytic.

 

2. Organic substances of gastric juice:

A) trypsin;

B) amylase;

C) pepsin;

D) lipase;

E) chymosin.

 

3. Enzymes of pancreatic juice:

A) enterokinase;

B) pepsin;

C) chymosin;

D) trypsin;

E) lipase;

F) lysozyme;

G) renin.

 

4. Types of contraction of the small intestine:

A) retrograde;

B) conditioned reflex;

C) periodic;

D) rhythmic segmentation;

E) peristaltic;

F) unconditionally reflexive;

G) complex-reflex.

 

5. Functions of the stomach:

A) biligenic;

B) immune;

C) bile excretory;

D) protein-synthesizing;

E) secretory;

F) bactericidal;

G) motor.

 

6. Motor function of the gastrointestinal tract is examined using:

A) electrogastrography;

B) gastroscopy;

C) myography;

D) electroencephalography;

E) spirography.

 

7. What is the significance of bile for the absorption of fat:

A) increases surface tension.

B) emulsifies fats.

C) reduces the effect of lipase.

D) inhibits the absorption of fatty acids.

Е) activates the action of pepsin.

 

8. By which protein the saliva glues and envelops the food com, thereby facilitating its ingestion:

A) amylase;

B) lysozyme;

C) mucin;

D) glucosidase;

E) inhibin.

 

9. The nutrition and saturation center is located in

A) oblong brain;

C) Varol's brain;

C) hypothalamus;

D) the cerebral cortex;

E) the cerebellum.

 

10. Which enzymes the stomach glands secrete:

A) Peptidodigrolases: pepsin (s), gastricin, rennin, lipase;

B) Trypsin, alpha-amylase, lactase;

C) Peptidohydrolases: pepsin (s), gastricin, rennin, saccharase, enterokinase;

D) The main cells of the glands of the stomach secrete enzymes

 

11. The conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin activates:

A) gastrin;

B) enterokinase;

C) HCl;

D) amylase;

E) food components.

 

12. Trypsinogen is excreted

A) by salivary glands;

B) by the main cells of the stomach glands;

C) lining cells of the stomach glands;

D) pancreatic gland;

E) glands of the duodenum.

 

13. The transformation of trypsinogen into trypsin is carried out:

A) In the stomach with hydrochloric acid;

B) In the stomach with gastrin;

C) In the duodenum enterogastrin;

D) In the duodenum enterokinase;

E) In the pancreas, carboxypeptidase.

 

14. Humoral factors that enhance pancreatic secretion:

A) secretin, cholecystokinin, gastrin;

B) secretin, cholecystokinin, glucagon;

C) gastrin, glucagon, calcitonin.

 

15. Enzymes of intestinal juice are:

A) amylase, lactase, sugarase, lipase, phospholipase, aminopeptidase, dipeptidase, nuclease;

B) pepsin, gastricin, aminopeptidase, dipeptidase;

C) gastricin, amylase, lactase, sugarase, lipase, phospholipase.

 

16. Bile in the process of digestion is necessary for:

A) emulsification of fats and absorption of products of fats digestion;

B) inhibition of the release of lipase from the pancreatic juice;

C) absorption of products of fats digestion;

D) destruction of trypsin by pepsin.

 

17. The gastric mucosa has:

A) wrinkles;

B) villi and microvilli;

C) furrows and convolutions;

D) folds.

 

18. Pepsinogen in the stomach is synthesized:

A) by the main cells;

B) by additional cells;

C) by mucocytes;

D) by covering cells.

 

19. The largest digestive gland in the human body is:

A) the thyroid gland;

B) the pancreas;

C) liver.

 

20. What is the daily volume of gastric juice in an adult:

A) 3-5 liters;

B) 0.1-0.3 liters;

C) 0.5-0.7 liters;

D) 2-2.5 liters.

 

Metabolism and energy

 

1. The macronutrients include:

A) nickel;

B) ammonia;

C) calcium;

D) sodium;

E) phosphorus.

 

2. Finite metabolic products are:

A) water;

B) calcium;

C) urea and ammonia;

D) chlorine;

E) Carbon dioxide.

 

3. Violation of normal vitamin metabolism in the body:

A) hypovitaminosis;

B) normovitaminosis;

C) Nitrogen balance;

D) avitaminosis;

E) hypervitaminosis.

 

4. Water-soluble vitamins:

A)  Retinol (A);

B) Nicotinic acid (PP);

C) Tocopherol (E);

D) Calciferol (D3) and tocopherol (E);

E) phylloquinone (K);

F) calciferol (D3).

 

5. The composition of bile includes:

A) hydrochloric acid;

B) fructose;

C) amylase;

D) fatty acid;

E) sucrose;

F) bilirbin;

G) cholesrin.

 

6. Water-mineral exchange is regulated by:

A) testosterone;

B) aldosterone;

C) progesterone;

D) vasopressin;

E) thyroxine.

F) Adrenaline

G) Estrogen

 

7. Positive nitrogen balance:

A) observed in protein starvation

B) observed with enhanced sports training, leading to an increase in muscle tissue

C) the state at which there is a delay of nitrogen in the body that is noted in cases of disorders of neuroendocrine regulation of protein metabolism

D) observed in children due to increased growth, in women during pregnancy

E) a condition in which the amount of nitrogen excreted is equal to the amount of ingested

F) observed in prolonged fever states

 

 

8. What hormone, produced by the adrenal glands, is involved in the regulation of water-salt metabolism:

A) norepinephrine;

B) adrenaline;

C) androgens;

D) mineralocorticoid;

E) glucocorticoids.

 

9. What is glycogenesis:

A) the process in which glycogen is synthesized in the liver from glucose;

B) the process of decomposition of glycogen to glucose;

C) the process of decomposition of muscle glycogen to the formation of pyruvic and lactic acids;

D) the process of the formation of carbohydrates from proteins and fats;

E) the process of disintegration of all indicators.

 

10. What is the basis of direct calorimetry:

A) accounting for the amount of oxygen absorbed and carbon dioxide released;

C) accounting for the amount of carbon dioxide absorbed;

C) accounting for the amount of oxygen absorbed

D) direct measurement of the amount of heat released by the body;

E) account for the release of heat at rest and work.

 

11. What is called the respiratory quotient:

A) the ratio of the amount of additional air to the amount of reserve air;

B) the ratio of the amount of CO2 released to the amount of absorbed O2;

C) the ratio of the amount of exhaled O2 to the amount of CO2 injected;

D) ratio of the amount of inhaled and exhaled O2;

E) the ratio of the amount of exhaled O2 alone.

 

12. What is the respiratory quotient for the oxidation of proteins, fats, carbohydrates:

A) proteins - 1.0, fats - 1.8, carbohydrates - 0.7:

B) proteins - 1,2, fats - 0,9, carbohydrates - 1,5;

C) proteins - 0.8, fats - 1.1, carbohydrates - 0.8

D) proteins - 0.8, fats - 0.7, carbohydrates - 1.0;

E) proteins-1.5, fats-2.3, carbohydrates-1.7.

 

13. Normal blood glucose concentration (mol / l):

A) 5.6-7.7

B) 3.3 - 5.5;

C) 2.1-4.4;

D) 4.5 -6.3;

E) 1-2.5.

 

14. Where is the main depot of glycogen in the body?

A) liver;

B) heart;

C) kidney;

D) lungs;

E) spleen.

 

15. What is the percentage of water in the adult body from its mass:

A) 30-40%;

B) 70-80%;

C) 50-60%;

D) 85-92%;

E) 90-95%;

 

16. What hormones carry out neuroendocrine regulation of protein metabolism:

A) somatotropic hormone, thyroxine and triiodothyronine;

B) epinephrine, norepinephrine, insulin;

C) vasopressin, oxytocin, paraormon;

D) glucagon, adrenocorticotropic hormone, prolactin;

E) vasopressin, serotonin, endorphin.

 

17. What is a vitamin:

A) substances that are formed in the body;

B) substances that are not formed in the body;

C) substances existing in food;

D) biologically inactive substances;

E) biologically active substance.

 

18. How do vitamins get into the body:

A) food;

B) air;

C) water;

D) blood;

E) substances;

 

19. Which vitamins dissolve in water:

A) В1 В3 В6 В12 В1 С, Н, РР;

B) A, E, K;

C) D, A, E;

D) A, K, E;

E) A, D, E, K.

 

20. What happens when there is a shortage of vitamin A:

A) Parkinson;

B) Alsheimer;

C) night blindness;

D) diphtheria;

E) scurvy.

 

Physiology of secretion and thermoregulation

 

1. The rate of glomerular filtration depends on:

A) volume of blood

B) thickness of the cortical layer

C) size of the kidney

D) nervous influences

E) filtration pressure

F) humoral influences

G) number of active nephrons

 

2. In the proximal part of the tubule of the kidneys what do almost completely reabsorbe:

A) potassium ions

B) proteins

C) amino acids

D) water

E) glucose

F) chlorine ions

 

3. By the ability to regulate body temperature, organisms are divided into:

A) poikilothermic;

B) stenobionts;

C) heterothermal;

D) eurybionts;

E) homeothermal.

 

4. In the distal part of the renal tubules, they are reabsorbed by the active way of:

A) chlorine;

B) sodium;

C) potassium;

D) proteins;

E) calcium.

 

5. Formation of final urine is the result of processes of:

A) diffusion;

B) transformation;

C) filtering;

D) accommodation;

E) reabsorption;

F) secretion.

 

6. Normal urine of a healthy person is free of:

A) erythrocytes

B) sodium chloride

C) protein

D) pigments urobilin, urochrome

E) uric acid

F) glucose

 

7. The organs of excretory system:

A) thyroid

B) spleen

C) kidneys, intestines

D) lungs

E) skin

 

8. What zones are present in the adrenal cortex and what hormones are produced in them:

A) in all zones - mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids;

B) in the glomerular zone - glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids;

C) there is no division into zones;

D) in the reticular zone - sexual;

E) in the fascicle - sex and adrenaline;

F) in the bundle zone - glucocorticoids;

G) in the glomerular zone - mineralocorticoids.

 

9. The increase in heat formation in homoiothermal organisms with decreasing ambient temperature occurs due to:

A) decreased thyroid function;

B) decrease in muscle activity;

C) involuntary contractions of skeletal muscles (trembling);

D) increasing the intensity of metabolic processes;

E) enlargement of peripheral blood vessels;

F) increased sweating and perspiration;

G) reflex reduction of metabolism.

 

10. Poykilothermic animals:

A) Heterothermal;

B) Mammals

C) Amphibians;

D) Invertebrates;

E) birds;

F) human;

G) reptiles.

 

11. In which department of nephron is the formation of primary, or provisional urine:

A) proximal convoluted tubule;

C) Shumlyansky-Bowman capsule;

C) the descending part of the loop of Henle;

D) distal convoluted tubule;

E) the ascending part of the loop of Henle.

 

12. The kidney is involved in the regulation of the pH of the blood by

A) increased tubular secretion of urea;

C) development of renin;

C) secretion of hydrogen ions;

D) changes in sodium reabsorption.

 

13. The center of thirst is in

A) the hypothalamus;

B) anterior pituitary gland;

C) the spinal cord;

D) the medulla oblongata;

E) posterior central gyrus of the cortex of the cerebral hemispheres.

 

14. The feeling of thirst arises

A) with excessive intake of salts in the body, with an increase in blood Рosm, with insufficient intake of water into the body, when the oral mucosa desiccates;

B) with excessive intake of salts in the body, with a decrease in blood flow, with excess water intake in the body;

C) with a decrease in blood Рosm, with excess intake of salts in the body.

 

15. The constancy of the average body temperature, despite fluctuations in the external temperature, is called

A) homeostasis;

B) isothermia;

C) hyperthermia;

D) hypothermia;

E) isodynamy.

 

16. The thermoregulation center is located

A) in the medulla oblongata;

B) in the middle brain;

C) in the hypothalamus.

 

17. Peculiarities of the functioning of thermal receptors

A) stably function at a temperature of 38 - 40o, constantly generate 4 imp / s, while cooling and warming, the impulse is cut off, the interval between pulses increases;

B) stably function at a temperature of 26 - 32o, constantly generate 10 imp / s, while cooling and warming, the impulses become smaller, the interval between pulses increases;

C) with rapid cooling, the impulse sharply increases, then stabilizes at a new level, with rapid heating, the impulse shrinks, then stabilizes at a new level.

 

18. In water, the heat output is carried out as a:

A) radiation;

B) evaporation;

C) thermal conductivity;

D) convection.

 

19. Thermogenesis is

A) heat production;

B) absorption of heat;

C) heat recovery.

 

20. The process of formation of heat in the body is called

A) oxidation;

B) heat transfer;

C) heat production;

D) heat exchange.